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This week, instead of discussing the Torah portion, we went over the Book of Esther in light of the holiday. One aspect that we discussed at great length was interesting to me, so I wanted to ask about it here and solicit opinions.

The rabbi was asking why Mordechai asked Esther to hide being Jewish from the king. He feels that Persia was very accepting of other faiths and cultures, so he wasn't sure why this would be necessary. He pointed to the following to indicate the acceptance for others:


And when the king's decree which he shall make shall be published throughout all his kingdom, great though it be, all the wives will give to their husbands honour, both to great and small.'

And the word pleased the king and the princes; and the king did according to the word of Memucan;

for he sent letters into all the king's provinces, into every province according to the writing thereof, and to every people after their language, that every man should bear rule in his own house, and speak according to the language of his people.
(JPS Tanakh)


We all had lots of thoughts about why Esther would need to hide being a Jew, but I'm curious what your thoughts are.
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Just to get things started, what do you all make of of 'They' in 25:10 where the rest of the portion uses, 'You.' I'm referring to 'They shall make...' and 'You shall make...' I noticed it when I was going over the portion, and I'm curious what others think it means.
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To read this week's torah portion, please click here. Please click here for discussion on the parsha.
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I started this community to have an online place for weekly Torah study. Every week, I'll post a link to the parsha, and I hope we'll start a wonderful discussion. Thanks for stopping by!
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